THE LANDLORD POSTED A FOR SALE SING A FEW MONTHS AGO, WITHOUT LETTING US KNOW THAT HE WAS GOING TO SELL THE HOUSE THEN IN A FEW DAYS PEOPLE STARTED TO SHOW UP, AT FIRST THE LAND LORD GOT MAD BECAUSE WE DIDN’T WANTED TO LET HIM IN TO SHOW THE HOUSE AROUND,HE SAID IT WAS HIS PROPERTY AND THAT HE COULD GET IN THE HOUSE WHEN EVER HE PLEASED. I GUESS THAT THE REALSTATE AGENT TOLD HIM THAT HE COULDN’T DO THAT SO HE STARTED TO LEAVE NOTES ON THE DOOR SAYING THAT HE WAS GOING TO SHOW THE PROPERTY ONE DAY BEFORE, SO I GUESS THAT WAS OK. RIGHT? SO TODAY AUGUST 14 2006 HE TELLS US HE HAS SOLD THE HOUSE AND THAT THE NEW OWNER WANTED THE HOUSE DISOCUPPIED BY SEPTEMBER 14 2006. SO IS THIS RIGHT? I KNOW WE PAID FIRST AND LAST MONTH AHEAD. IS THIS ALL WE GET 30 DAYS AFTER 6 YEARS. WILL IT MAKE ANY DIFFERENCE WETHER IT IS A LEASE OR A RENT AGREEMENT. PLEASE HELP…
I live in los Angeles California